Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 04:56
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
How do Flat Earthers explain time zones?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How do you write lyrics for a song that resonates with listeners?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.